While this may not be related to an appraisal issue, I do have a question about the appraisal contingency.
I was under the impression that it's the lender who requires a certain appraisal value in order to fund the loan so even if the buyer waives that contingency, that doesn't take the lender off the hook.
Say the offer price is $800k and the buyers are putting down 25%, that's a loan amount of $600k... what if the house only appraises for $550k? Will the lender still fund that? If the appraisal comes in lower, the lender will loan a lower amount. For example, if a buyer is putting down 20% on $800k purchase the loan would be $640k but if the appraised value comes in at $700k then the lender will only lend out 80% of $700k or $560k so the buyer would have to make up the $80k in additional down payment. There are no additional fees or costs that the sellers incur for a financed buyer versus a cash buyer (it's the buyers that have additional costs to close). My buyers had a full DU underwriting approval which means the lender got everything from them to pre-approve their loan and were going to close in 28 days which is how long the cash buyers took to close (usually cash buyers will close in 14-17 days). Also, the owners wanted to rent back the home through the end of June which my buyers also agreed to.
Put yourself in their shoes, are there other reasons why a lower all-cash offer would be more attractive than a financed one? Are there any other issues outside of the appraisal that will prevent a lender from funding? Are there more fees/requirements for the seller in a financed transaction? Maybe the sellers wanted a faster escrow.
As IR is saying... it may not just be the difference in offer price or that it was all-cash.