[quote author="graphrix" date=1250074207][quote author="autox" date=1250068755]I'm more interested in the property tax aspect versus the IRS gift/estate side.
Theoretical situation:
You have John who bought a house at peak bubble and paid 1 mil. So he's currently paying property tax at one mil. Can he sale it to a friend for 300k who sale it back to him for 300k, so that now he only have to pay property tax at 300k?
What if the property is worth now worth 500k, does that make a difference?</blockquote>
No, he will not have a tax base on $300k. He will have a tax base on whatever the assessor believes the value is, and if that value is $500k, then the tax base would be based on that. Property taxes are based on the land value and the improvements or value/cost of the structure. If the improvements were valued at $300k, then the land would have to have a value of $0 in order for the tax base to be on $300k. I don't think there is any land valued at $0 in OC, Riverside yes, but OC no.
If it were a parent selling or gifting it to their kid, then it is a whole different story. There are ways to transfer the parents lower tax base due to prop 13 to the kid, but this would also mean they bought it years ago and the value of the property has now exceeded the increase in property tax rate. I.E. if they bought it for $100k 30 years ago, and now it is worth $500k, the tax base would be roughly based on $200k. However once the parent does this, they no longer can transfer their lower tax base to another property in CA.</blockquote>
Normally, houses are reassessed at the purchase price. If that's lower than what the assessor previously thought the property was worth, taxes are still lowered to the purchase price. Of course, this should only apply in hands off transactions between unrelated parties-the question is what happens if the transaction is between related parties? Will the assessor catch the fact that it was sold to related parties at a discount, or will they still automatically lower it to the purchase cost?