doobage_IHB
New member
In the rental parity calculation, I noticed that there isn't a value ascribed, on the ownership side of the equation, to owning an asset that historically delivers a positive return on equity through the use of leverage. I'm interested in knowing why this hasn't been factored into the calculation, as it's presumably, the past few years excepting, one of the benefits of owning a home.
For instance, if I purchased a $1mm property, assuming 80% LTV, 6.5% mortgage rate, and 3% appreciation per annum, and sold the property 10 years later, the leveraged return would be $343,916 on $321,791 invested ($200,000 down payment and $121,791 in principal payments). All the appreciation upside accrues to the homeowner vs. being split proportionately with the note holder.
I know that appreciation isn't a certainty but historically real estate has been a positively appreciating asset class. Shouldn't there be some consideration for this attribute in your calculation. I'm interested in the thoughts of those on this board.
Thanks in advance.
For instance, if I purchased a $1mm property, assuming 80% LTV, 6.5% mortgage rate, and 3% appreciation per annum, and sold the property 10 years later, the leveraged return would be $343,916 on $321,791 invested ($200,000 down payment and $121,791 in principal payments). All the appreciation upside accrues to the homeowner vs. being split proportionately with the note holder.
I know that appreciation isn't a certainty but historically real estate has been a positively appreciating asset class. Shouldn't there be some consideration for this attribute in your calculation. I'm interested in the thoughts of those on this board.
Thanks in advance.